Hi, Updated, thank you "hometune" for your input. This is my second post. Briefly, I bought a car for my son four weeks ago (Peaugot 206 54 plate, 86000 mileage) from a local garage in Sunderland for 1200. 18 days later the timing belt snapped while he was driving on a motorway. Paid 180 breakdown charge to return it to his residence in Manchester. Contacted the garage dealer twice and explained above. He tells me the timing belt could 'go anytime', and dosen't do warranties on older cars for that price bracket (this wasn't mentioned at the time of purchase). His bottom line is he will repair the car very cheaply (250) but will not pay for transportation from Manchester to Sunderland (I paid 190 for transport to the dealers (separate) mechanics garage in Sunderland to avoid on-going parking charges where it was parked) saying this is the best he can do.
My son dosen't want this broken car fixed, I don't blame him - for ongoing expenses accruing and future concerns of reliability, and I've took responsibility for this predicament. I feel I'm being dealt unfairly and entitled to a full refund and incurred costs for breakdown and transportation? - up to now totaling 1,570 even without a repair. I told the dealer I'd get back to him when I've made a decision. Am I covered with the Sale of Goods Act 1979 "faulty goods/fit for purpose" or is the timing belt classed as "general wear and tear" (Peaugot recommends timing belt replacement for this model at 80,000 miles), the car's 6000 miles over this!

Undecided and stressed! HELP APPRECIATED!